well..
ive been using the following table from a previous post:
.1% - 300 units
.3% - 250 units
.5% - 230 units
1% - 200 units
3% - 150 units
5% - 128 units
10% - 95 units
so for my bankroll of $10k and taking on the assumption of 1% ror, I've been using $50 units. Just to make sure, when units are used for 3cp, that described the ante bet, not the total ante and play bet, correct?
either way, do you know the percent of the unit that is appropriate to bet for each of 2 hands for optimal return vs. risk (like how its ~72% of the bet for 2 hands in blackjack)? Also, since compared to blackjack you remove the problem of using high cards, is this optimal percent just based on the correlation between the 2 hands of win/lose vs. dealer hand to arrive at the optimal percent?