Is this correct???

EasyRhino

Well-Known Member
Not sure what the rules of the game are, but it might be possible with a single deck game from 40 years ago.
 

Kasi

Well-Known Member
Thunder said:
That's what I was thinking too. I'd be curious to know what data that was based on.
Seems a little weird - lower win rate, higher loss rate and lower tie rate compared to overall.

31% of hands played at zero?

Maybe truncating 0.9 counts to zero? Floating advantage where a TC 0 is worth more at the end of a shoe than the beginning?

Even the overall W/L/T percentages seem slightly off, at least for a multi-deck game.

Maybe Norm will satisfy our curiosity.
 
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