Minimum/Maximum Bets

[DoubleDown27]

I know that the House Advantage for a $5 minimum / $500 maximum bet (100 times minimum) is somewhere between 1% and 5%, depending upon the rules governing how players can play specific hands.

I recently went to a Charity Poker Room where the minimum bet was $2, but the maximum bet was $10. I would think that a maximum bet of only 5 times minimum would be a Huge House Advantage. You would only be able to double your bet twice.

Does anyone know how much this rule increases the House Advantage, and to what is the new House Advantage? Is there a website that has this calculation?

 

[HockeXpert]

I'll give it a try

I'm not sure I really follow the logic but I'll try to answer your question. The HA does not vary with the spread between the min and max bet. A counter's, or other type of AP's, advantage would be diminished or eliminated by a reduced spread between min and max bets depending on the AP method used, the HA and the maximum spread allowed.

To put it another way, if one were using no AP method to play a game, it would not matter what the spread is, the HA is a constant that does not vary no matter what the bet size is when the HA is expressed as a percentage of the amount wagered.

HockeXpert

 

[DoubleDown27]

A counter's, or other type of AP's, advantage would be diminished or eliminated by a reduced spread between min and max bets depending on the AP method used, the HA and the maximum spread allowed.

To put it another way, if one were using no AP method to play a game, it would not matter what the spread is, the HA is a constant that does not vary no matter what the bet size is when the HA is expressed as a percentage of the amount wagered.

HockeXpert

Thanks for responding, but as a Player if my advantage is diminished or eliminated because my max bet is limited to only $10 during favorable conditions, then wouldn't it be correct to say that I have less chance of walking away a winner?? And if that statement is correct, wouldn't it be also correct to say the House Advantage just went up??

 

[ihate17]

House advantage the wrong term

Thanks for responding, but as a Player if my advantage is diminished or eliminated because my max bet is limited to only $10 during favorable conditions, then wouldn't it be correct to say that I have less chance of walking away a winner?? And if that statement is correct, wouldn't it be also correct to say the House Advantage just went up??

The HA is based upon the percentage advantage the house has against basic strategy. A bad player would be playing at a higher HA while you as a counter would eliminate the HA completely overall (depending on the rules of the game).
What you are looking for is the estimated value of your game and someone here can give you that if you supply the number of decks, rules, and the amount of pen for your game.
The fact that you are limited to a 1-5 spread will result with the average type of rules available a good profit percentage in single deck but for both double deck and 6 deck, your spread makes the game extremely marginal.

Of course if you measure your EV in dollars and have a max bet of $10, you are not going to make lunch money.

ihate17

 

[DoubleDown27]

What you are looking for is the estimated value of your game and someone here can give you that if you supply the number of decks, rules, and the amount of pen for your game.
The fact that you are limited to a 1-5 spread will result with the average type of rules available a good profit percentage in single deck but for both double deck and 6 deck, your spread makes the game extremely marginal.

Of course if you measure your EV in dollars and have a max bet of $10, you are not going to make lunch money.

ihate17

These are the rules that were posted:
1. 8 decks
2. Blackjack pays 3-2
3. Dealer Hits Soft 17
4. Double on 10-11 Only
5. Player cannot split Aces
6. Player cannot hit split Aces
7. No Late Surrender
8. Player can split any two cards
9. Ties are a Push

I also noticed that the dealer reshuffles when approximately 3 decks remain in the shoe.

It seems to me a player can really only play Basic Strategy in this game. The 1-5 betting spread will really hinder me from taking advantage of any positive True Count I may determine exists.

What do you think? Can this game be beat?

 

[Blue Efficacy]

These are the rules that were posted:
1. 8 decks
2. Blackjack pays 3-2
3. Dealer Hits Soft 17
4. Double on 10-11 Only
5. Player cannot split Aces
6. Player cannot hit split Aces
7. No Late Surrender
8. Player can split any two cards
9. Ties are a Push

I also noticed that the dealer reshuffles when approximately 3 decks remain in the shoe.

It seems to me a player can really only play Basic Strategy in this game. The 1-5 betting spread will really hinder me from taking advantage of any positive True Count I may determine exists.

What do you think? Can this game be beat?

This game is truly awful. I would say with such a tight spread and horrible rules, that no, it cannot be beat.

 

[ycming]

Avoid

Ming

 

[DoubleDown27]

Beat This Game!

This game is truly awful. I would say with such a tight spread and horrible rules, that no, it cannot be beat.

I made a slight typo in the rules. They DO allow splitting Aces, but you only get one card.

I don't suppose this makes much of a difference in whether or not this game can be beat.

 

[johndoe]

This is just about the worst game I've ever heard of. Don't even bother.

 

[Blue Efficacy]

Bet $10 when the count is +2 or higher, and nothing otherwise, that is probably the only way you can make a couple bucks off this game.

 

[ycming]

Bet $10 when the count is +2 or higher, and nothing otherwise, that is probably the only way you can make a couple bucks off this game.

I think the better route would be playing every possible box with +2 at $10.

And don't play at all below +2

Ming