I'm playing at a casino, where minimum table is $5, and they have $1 and $2.50 chips. This casino has no half dollar or quarter coins.
I almost always play $5/hand, but sometimes after a blackjack payout, I put that $2.50 chip on top of my $5, for a $7.50 bet. While doing this, I never got a blackjack, but this got me wondering. If I get a blackjack with a $7.50 bet, payout is supposed to be $11.25, but the casino has no way to pay me that amount. They can either pay $11, or $12. I will never settle for the former, as that is against the rule of BJ pays 3:2. So, will the casino pay $12 in this case?
If that is the case, this will eat up into the house edge with no counting or anything. Assuming 0.69% house edge, the expected loss per hour (60 hands/hour assumed) by playing $7.50/hand will be $3.11. During these 60 hands, on average, there will be 2.82 blackjacks, paying $2.12 extra ($0.75/blackjack).
What do you guys think? Have you encountered a situation like this?
I almost always play $5/hand, but sometimes after a blackjack payout, I put that $2.50 chip on top of my $5, for a $7.50 bet. While doing this, I never got a blackjack, but this got me wondering. If I get a blackjack with a $7.50 bet, payout is supposed to be $11.25, but the casino has no way to pay me that amount. They can either pay $11, or $12. I will never settle for the former, as that is against the rule of BJ pays 3:2. So, will the casino pay $12 in this case?
If that is the case, this will eat up into the house edge with no counting or anything. Assuming 0.69% house edge, the expected loss per hour (60 hands/hour assumed) by playing $7.50/hand will be $3.11. During these 60 hands, on average, there will be 2.82 blackjacks, paying $2.12 extra ($0.75/blackjack).
What do you guys think? Have you encountered a situation like this?
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