polishedsteele
New Member
I have just run across a "shufflemaster royal match" virtual blackjack machine at a local casino that states that the RNG correlates to a six hand deck which is "shuffled after every hand". Given that RNG fairly represents a standard 52 deck (and as far as I understand, by law it must) and given that the card distribution is entirely random without any initial or secondary outcome predeterminations (and from what I understand from reading the literature on this particular version of blackjack, no initial or secondary outcome predeterminations exist), what would the be the odds for this game if basic strategy was used without deviation? (note, dealer stands on all 17s, player can double for all favourable two card totals, pairs can be split but not resplit, one card only for aces, late surrender is offered).
Regardless of the "six decks", given that the player and dealer "cards" are shuffled after each hand would the player not be confronted with a hypothetical neutral count for each hand, which is the best case scenario for playing basic strategy without deviation? And if this is so, wouldn't the odds compare to Thorpe's initial calculation of the odds for basic strategy? From what I understand, Thorpe's computer simulations for devising basic strategy were based on a hypothetical neutral count-- ie, shuffled after every hand. Can anyone explain if and how the number of virtual decks become a factor in determining the games odds if they are shuffled after each hand. In this case, I do not understand how there could be a difference between the shufflemaster's six virtual decks and Thorpe's one virtual deck. If there is not, are we not given some pretty decent odds? From what I understand +0.17%. Any thoughts would be appreciated.
Regardless of the "six decks", given that the player and dealer "cards" are shuffled after each hand would the player not be confronted with a hypothetical neutral count for each hand, which is the best case scenario for playing basic strategy without deviation? And if this is so, wouldn't the odds compare to Thorpe's initial calculation of the odds for basic strategy? From what I understand, Thorpe's computer simulations for devising basic strategy were based on a hypothetical neutral count-- ie, shuffled after every hand. Can anyone explain if and how the number of virtual decks become a factor in determining the games odds if they are shuffled after each hand. In this case, I do not understand how there could be a difference between the shufflemaster's six virtual decks and Thorpe's one virtual deck. If there is not, are we not given some pretty decent odds? From what I understand +0.17%. Any thoughts would be appreciated.
