phantom007
Well-Known Member
I am trying to further my studies and understanding of the game of BJ, I still have trouble grasping RoR (Risk of Ruin).
I had always considered RoR as "REVERSE PLOPPINESS", i.e., those playing a Neg. Expectation game...players do get ahead (for a short-to-medium term), despite the best intent of mathematics. In other words, one could play to advantage, yet still lose, during the short-medium term.
Case in point, I know members of a Professional Slot Team...they make fun of my "sweating the cards", when "ALL One has to do is watch a bank of machines for 8-10 hours, then PLAY the ones that have not hit during said time-frame". Certainly, this "Team" is ahead over the last 2 years by about $40K...approx. 10X by net positivity (of course, ALL of my ploppy remissions into the land of Craps and Progressive BJ is included in MY total).
As I have stated previously, I do not PERSONALLY like "front-Wonging", i.e. watching shoe after shoe, entering play only at Positive situations. But mathematical facts aside, even IF said slot team was onto something, which I know they are not....I AIN'T GOING TO WONG A BANK OF SLOTS FOR 8-10 HOURS!
Question #1: Is my grasp of the basic principle of RoR correct?
Question #2: How does Spread affect RoR...for example only, LV Strip DD, 4:1
vs. 8:1?
Question #3: Does RoR presume ALL winnings are placed back into the Bankroll?
Question #4: The Mayor recently posted a statement: "Playing full Kelly gives
one a 13% RoR". Please explain...I thought the whole idea behind
Kelly was to decrease RoR?
Thanks to ALL in advance for answer(s) and/or advice. Will simply request all to keep the answers SIMPLE...ah' did good in algebra and trig, but Calculus sent me to grad school...calculus grades so BAD, my GPA needed grad school to amend!
phantom007.
I had always considered RoR as "REVERSE PLOPPINESS", i.e., those playing a Neg. Expectation game...players do get ahead (for a short-to-medium term), despite the best intent of mathematics. In other words, one could play to advantage, yet still lose, during the short-medium term.
Case in point, I know members of a Professional Slot Team...they make fun of my "sweating the cards", when "ALL One has to do is watch a bank of machines for 8-10 hours, then PLAY the ones that have not hit during said time-frame". Certainly, this "Team" is ahead over the last 2 years by about $40K...approx. 10X by net positivity (of course, ALL of my ploppy remissions into the land of Craps and Progressive BJ is included in MY total).
As I have stated previously, I do not PERSONALLY like "front-Wonging", i.e. watching shoe after shoe, entering play only at Positive situations. But mathematical facts aside, even IF said slot team was onto something, which I know they are not....I AIN'T GOING TO WONG A BANK OF SLOTS FOR 8-10 HOURS!
Question #1: Is my grasp of the basic principle of RoR correct?
Question #2: How does Spread affect RoR...for example only, LV Strip DD, 4:1
vs. 8:1?
Question #3: Does RoR presume ALL winnings are placed back into the Bankroll?
Question #4: The Mayor recently posted a statement: "Playing full Kelly gives
one a 13% RoR". Please explain...I thought the whole idea behind
Kelly was to decrease RoR?
Thanks to ALL in advance for answer(s) and/or advice. Will simply request all to keep the answers SIMPLE...ah' did good in algebra and trig, but Calculus sent me to grad school...calculus grades so BAD, my GPA needed grad school to amend!
phantom007.