Not sure who out there is good with stats but is it true or not that the player has a statistical edge if they get 19, 20, or 21 on the first two cards and thats basically it?
does every other hand total favor the house ?
why do I say this? well 17, & 18 for player are statistically losing hands arent they?
9, 10 & 11 are you favored to win on ALL hands or just when dealer has 4, 5, 6, facing up?
-odds of getting 19 or better on 9 is 38% and on 10 or 11 its 46%
I realize the player can be favored in some hands, but the player becomes favored only AFTER the dealer flips over hole card and has 12-16 as a total!
So when a player doesn't hit and assumes or hopes the dealer has both a certain card in the hole or will draw a certain card to bust
doesn't this make the player at a statistical disadvantage on ALL hands player does not draw a card and hopes the dealer busts?
does every other hand total favor the house ?
why do I say this? well 17, & 18 for player are statistically losing hands arent they?
9, 10 & 11 are you favored to win on ALL hands or just when dealer has 4, 5, 6, facing up?
-odds of getting 19 or better on 9 is 38% and on 10 or 11 its 46%
I realize the player can be favored in some hands, but the player becomes favored only AFTER the dealer flips over hole card and has 12-16 as a total!
So when a player doesn't hit and assumes or hopes the dealer has both a certain card in the hole or will draw a certain card to bust
doesn't this make the player at a statistical disadvantage on ALL hands player does not draw a card and hopes the dealer busts?