SleightOfHand
Well-Known Member
It would seem obvious that game B is the better game because of the similar WR but better SCORE (which implies less variance). Now the question is, how much of an improvement in the hands/hr would game A have to have in order to be preferable over the current game B?
If using CE as the determining factor, game A would have to improve to $100.80/hr, which is only 2% greater than game B. Although I am a huge supporter of using CE for game selection, I would disagree in this case.
What do you guys think?
If using CE as the determining factor, game A would have to improve to $100.80/hr, which is only 2% greater than game B. Although I am a huge supporter of using CE for game selection, I would disagree in this case.
What do you guys think?
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