I'm sorry I gave you a headache but this statement will come come back to bit you in the a--. It is you who has the error and needs to open your eyes to see your mistakeKasi said:I read your post and it gave me a headache. I was hoping being armed with the sure and certain knowledge of the right answer would inspire you to find your mistake.
If you agree that suited BJ's occur 1.18628% of the time, how can u disagree with the conclusion? Can you tell me that? It's axiomatic. How you can continue to think you have not made an error is beyond me.
This is where your mistake is... Read it again and again and see if you can see your error before you read further down.Kasi said:Put another way, if ALL BJ's were ALWAYS paid 3-1 that would be worth 0.047451344*1.5=0.071177016 wouldn't it? Can you see that as a starting point?
If suited BJ's occur 1.18628% of the time, and we've already agreed they do, then non-suited BJ's occur 0.047471344-0.0118628=0.035588544 of the time. Can we agree on that?
Which would be worth 0.035588544*1.5=0.053382816.
So the difference between the 2 has to be what suited BJ's are worth or 1.7794%.
It's really pretty straightforward and much easier to do since you don't even have to worry about tied BJ's.
You're answering your own question but missing it. Non-suited blackjacks don't pay 1.5 for pushes, they pay 0. Suited blackjacks on the other hand pay 3. So the difference for pushes is not 1.5*p(Push) but it's 3*p(Push).Kasi said:The only think you need to find out is the frequency of suited BJ's. What else is there to find out if they always win?
Maybe you can do your CA thing with a base EV of all BJ's being paid 3-1 and see if it changes by the first number above and work from there?
Somewhere I think you're counting the 1.5 units twice on the value of a tied suited BJ. A tied suited BJ will occur 0.0005463029 of the time. Multiply that by 1.5 and add it to our original result of 1.69747 and you will also get the 1.7794%. You've added it twice to get your 1.86%.
For 1.86% to be correct, suited BJ's would have to occur 0.0124091 of the time wouldn't they? Since that *1.5 = your 1.86%.
So I guess you either you still need to show me where I'm wrong or you need to redefine "axiomatic" and "certain knowledge"
BTW - I hope you know I'm just playing with the banter - it can be very confusing. My ca doesn't just do straightforward BJ always wins and must wins but also applies bonuses to specific suits and can apply suited bonuses to specific hands with or without the dealer peaking - so believe me, I had to think this through a lot.