which illustrious 18 indices are right?

[Kasi]

i looked at a frequency chart, which surprisingly showed that the counts of 0-1 occur more than the counts of 1-10 combined, and i play when the rc is +1, which means that of the hands i play, more than half of them are at tc 0-1,

Yes, it's true about the frequencies as I tried to point out to you in an earlier post somehwere.

But just because it's true does not mean you can simply conclude you are playing at an overall disadvantage simply because more hands were played at a disadvantage than an advantage. if that's what you think.

In fact it is unlikely that you are. (I'm making some assumptions here).

Go back to whatever chart you are using, assume you play 10000 hands, and multiply the advantage by hands played, given the frequency, and sum the results.

Hopefully you'll come up with the fact that while you may have played 2900 hands at a disadvantage, the other 2500 hands or so you played, at the advantage you played them at, more than compensate for the loss between 0 and +1.

Oh yeah, make life easy and assume you bet $1/hand.

Let me know what you come up with, if you want.

 

[zengrifter]

Yes, it's true about the frequencies as I tried to point out to you in an earlier post somehwere.

But just because it's true does not mean you can simply conclude you are playing at an overall disadvantage simply because more hands were played at a disadvantage than an advantage. if that's what you think.

In fact it is unlikely that you are. (I'm making some assumptions here).

Go back to whatever chart you are using, assume you play 10000 hands, and multiply the advantage by hands played, given the frequency, and sum the results.

Hopefully you'll come up with the fact that while you may have played 2900 hands at a disadvantage, the other 2500 hands or so you played, at the advantage you played them at, more than compensate for the loss between 0 and +1.

Oh yeah, make life easy and assume you bet $1/hand.

Let me know what you come up with, if you want.

Silent Bob will be gone for a few days, dealing hands and recording the results. zg

 

[Brock Windsor]

but averages are still exact numbers.. for instance, what is the average for a coin flip? 50/50, but to say "well its an average, so we could claim its 45/55 and still be accurate" is foolish.. thats why im confused, because sure you could double 9 vs 2 on +.5 or +1.5, but after a billion hands, there would be an exact number (like 1.1).. i will admit i have yet to read anything that says that indicies must be very accurate (quite the opposite is what i have read), but im just curious.. EDIT: im pretty sure you nailed it with when you said "that have been rounded/floored or whatever", because thats probably exactly why they are off.. i think all rounding should be done at the very end, not as you go, which is probably where the dif comes in.. if your adding 1.2 + 1.2 + 1.2, you shouldnt round them all to 1 to = 3, you should add them all up to get 3.6, then round to 4..

i dont see how deviating from basic strategy when called for is more risky, unless your doubling/splitting.. sorry if your sitting there going "ahhh why doesnt he get it" but im more thorough than most, and believe it or not, while others may say they get it, its possible they dont, they just give up and forget about it.. the #1 thing i fear is getting killed at the bj table wondering not about if i did everything correctly, but if about what i was doing was correct.. i have read probably 10-12 books on gambling, and after all the math, and all the talks of fractions of a penny (vp), to hear "rounding of rounding is ok" and "all the authors are right on dif indicies, it doesnt matter" just doesnt fit in my head.. thanks

I will weigh in on this once more. The theory today asseses dollar value to index plays. Doubling 9v2 at 0.5 or 1.5 or 1.1 makes little difference because the change in dollar advantage is so small. If you think this is still significant, consider the following. At the casino I play they round payouts to the nearest 25cents, IN THE PLAYERS FAVOUR. So a blackjack with a $2.50 chip on top of the bet yields $4 or an extra 25 cents. Getting a blackjack once in 21 hands means an extra $1/hr at a fast table. Depending on your BR, think how much that extra $1/hr means, in comparison to the tiny portion of that extra 9 1000ths of a unit you make or lose when making the play at +0.5 vs +1.5 TC. The advantage in 100ths of a dollar becomes insignificant. Arnold Snyder shows this in Blackbelt in BJ. That's whay you can play rounded indicies and not lose any expectation in terms of dollar value.
BW

 

[SilentBob420BMFJ]

Yes, it's true about the frequencies as I tried to point out to you in an earlier post somehwere.

But just because it's true does not mean you can simply conclude you are playing at an overall disadvantage simply because more hands were played at a disadvantage than an advantage. if that's what you think.

In fact it is unlikely that you are. (I'm making some assumptions here).

Go back to whatever chart you are using, assume you play 10000 hands, and multiply the advantage by hands played, given the frequency, and sum the results.

Hopefully you'll come up with the fact that while you may have played 2900 hands at a disadvantage, the other 2500 hands or so you played, at the advantage you played them at, more than compensate for the loss between 0 and +1.

Oh yeah, make life easy and assume you bet $1/hand.

Let me know what you come up with, if you want.

holy crap.. dude i totally forgot about that, thanks! so then despite what over half of you have said, i probably am playing at an advantage! i roughly calculated that i am playing at 0% to -.15% or so with my calculations above, but i totally forgot that that would only work if all positive counts =X, and all negative counts = -X, which is false.. see, this is how bad my memory is, because i knew this because 1. i actually told somebody else exactly how to calculate this (i was trying to prove to them i have the advantage), and 2. i did it for scratch lottery tickets, to figure out their EV, which btw i need to make a thread on, since many people are probably curious.. thanks

 

[Kasi]

holy crap.. dude i totally forgot about that, thanks!

You're welcome lol.

But, like I said, I made some assumptions.

You gotta game with specific rules and penetration and frequencies at various TC's, assuming you caclulate them a certain way, like truncating, rounding etc with average advantage at each of those points, it's a pretty easy calculation lol.

In other words, without a sim, it's a bit of a guess lol.

 

[SilentBob420BMFJ]

Silent Bob will be gone for a few days, dealing hands and recording the results. zg

You're welcome lol.

But, like I said, I made some assumptions.

You gotta game with specific rules and penetration and frequencies at various TC's, assuming you caclulate them a certain way, like truncating, rounding etc with average advantage at each of those points, it's a pretty easy calculation lol.

In other words, without a sim, it's a bit of a guess lol.

im not big on sims, nor have i ever run one because i dont know which program is the best, and i dont feel $90 on a program is a wise investment for somebody with a small bankroll, especially since it will just let me know what my advantage is, and not how to play, because chances are im not gonna change how i play, because the only thing i could do is only play at higher counts, which isnt gonna work because i have a feeling that eventually the pit boss will stop rating me or do something.. i cant imagine him sitting there seeing me playing 5 hands per shoe and not do anything about it